Dairy Production and Management Coursera Quiz | Week (5 – 8)
Dairy Production and Management
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Week 5
Question 1
Rumen size and papillae development are greatest before weaning when calves are fed:
- Milk only
- Hay only
- Milk and grain
- All of the above
Question 2
Colostrum should be fed within how many hours after birth:
- one
- six
- twelve
Question 3
Colostrum quality is determined by:
- Quantity
- Dry period length
- Breed
- Age of cow
- All of the above
Question 4
After weaning heifers should be grouped by:
- height
- weight
- body condition
- none of the above
Question 5
For large breed heifers age at freshening should be between:
- 19-20 months
- 22-24 months
- Greater than 25 months
- none of the above
Question 6
Dry cows need a minimum of feed bunk space during the dry period:
- 24 inches (60 cm)
- 30 inches (76 cm)
- None of the above
Question 7
A two-group feeding system for dry cows includes:
- 60 day dry period
- A far-off and close-up group
- One diet for all cows
- 60 day dry period and a far-off and close-up group
Question 8
Advantages of a one-group dry cow feeding system include:
- Cows are moved many times
- Increases the number of ration changes
- Increases the incidence of early calving
- Provides rumen fill around the time of calving
Question 9
Dry cows reduce their intake prior to calving:
- Due to inadequate bunk space
- Overcrowding
- Poor quality forage in the ration
- They are too fat
- All of the above
Question 10
Compared to mature cows heifers having their first calf, energy and protein concentrations in the diet need to be:
- Higher
- Lower
Question 11
Total blood protein decreases as the cow approaches calving because:
- The calf is taking more protein at the same time the cow is eating less
- There is a lower demand for glucose as lactation starts
- Skeletal muscle is mobilized from the dam for glucose production
- The calf is taking more protein at the same time the cow is eating less and skeletal muscle is mobilized from the dam for glucose production
Question 12
Considering additional requirements for mammary growth, heifers need approximately how many grams of metabolizable protein:
- 500 grams
- 700 grams
- 1000 grams
Question 13
Under feeding protein during the dry period:
- Will lead to an increased immune function
- Greater incidence of metabolic diseases after calving
- Reduces the amount of amino acids required by the fetus and mammary gland
- Greater incidence of metabolic diseases after calving and reduces the amount of amino acids required by the fetus and mammary gland
Question 14
A successful dry cow program includes:
- Making sure cows are eating well
- Minimizing cow movements and overcrowding
- Providing adequate energy, protein and vitamins and minerals
- Exposing cows to the same feed ingredients that are in the lactating cow ration
- All of the above
Question 15
Cows that are fat during the dry period:
- Will lose more body condition after calving
- Make less milk after calving
- Have greater risk of ketosis after calving
- Eat less than thin cows
- All of the above
Week 6
Question 1
On farms that use ovulation synchronization in the place of heat detection to breed cows, what term replaces heat detection rate in the pregnancy rate equation?
-
Conception rate
-
Ovulation rate
-
Pregnancy rate
-
Submission rate
Question 2
Conception rate is calculated by dividing the number of cows pregnant by which other factor?
-
number of cows inseminated
-
number of cows in heat
-
number of cows ovulating
-
number of cows pregnant
Question 3
Which of the following will reduce conception rates.
-
Heat stress
-
Diseases, including sub-clinical disease
-
Cows losing weight
-
All of the above
Question 4
The majority of pregnancy loss occurs in the first ____ weeks of pregnancy.
-
1-2 weeks
-
8-10 weeks
-
4-6 weeks
-
12-15 weeks
Question 5
Which of the following are important in determining the age at which a cow achieves puberty?
-
Age
-
Weight
-
Breed
-
All of the above
Question 6
Holstein dairy cows should calve for the first time and enter the milking herd at what age?
-
18-20 months
-
20-22 months
-
22-24 months
-
24-48 months
Question 7
Which of the following is the most accurate description of when a Holstein heifer is ready to be inseminated for the first time?
-
As soon as the heifer exhibits a good standing estrus.
-
When the heifer is two years of age.
-
When the heifer is cycling and achieves 2/3 of her mature body weight and a withers height of 48-50 inches.
-
As soon as she achieves 2/3 of her mature body weight regardless of her skeletal size.
Question 8
What is the average time from the onset of estrus to ovulation?
-
6 hours
-
12 hours
-
18 hours
-
30 hours
Question 9
What structure produces the steroid hormone progesterone?
-
Uterus
-
Follicle
-
Corpus luteum
-
Ovary
Question 10
What is recommend times and intervals for heat detection
-
Once per day for 20 minutes
-
Twice a day for 30 minutes
-
Three times per day for 30 minutes
-
Four times per day for 10 minutes
Question 11
Which is not a benefit of using artificial insemination?
-
Reduce venereal (sexually transmitted) diseases
-
Simple and can be done without training
-
Reduced costs compared to bull breeding
-
Reduced injuries to cows and personnel
Question 12
What is the primary sex steroid produced by the testis that is essential for sperm production?
-
Estrogen
-
Prostaglandin F
-
Progesterone
-
Testosterone
Question 13
Which of the following are secondary signs of estrus?
-
Restlessness
-
Chin Resting
-
Mounting other cows
-
All of the above
Question 14
Which of the following is the definitive sign that a cow is in estrus?
-
Restlessness
-
Chin Resting
-
Mounting other cows
-
Standing to be mounted by other cows
Question 15
What is the average length of estrus in mature cows?
-
1-2 hours
-
6-9 hours
-
12-24 hours
-
>24 hours
Week 7
Question 1
Biosecurity practices involve management activities to prevent importation of disease to the farm. Which disease is amendable to prevention by some biosecurity practices?
Brucellosis
Bovine Virus Diarrhea (BVD)
Foot and Mouth Disease
Tuberculosis
All of the above
Question 2
Which of the following activities would be considered important in a preventive medicine program for a dairy herd?
Calf and heifer management
Disease prevention program
Milking system management
Nutritional monitoring
All of the above
Question 3
Expulsion (delivery) of the fetus occurs during which stage of calving?
Stage 1
Stage 2
Stage 3
Stage 4
During any of the stages
Question 4
A common metabolic disease of older cows that is associated with many other diseases is:
Displaced abomasum
Hypocalcemia
Ketosis
Metritis
Retained fetal membranes
Question 5
Which calf management practice should be completed first in a calf born alive?
Administer sufficient amount of colostrum
Clear air passages and stimulate breathing
Spray iodine on navel
Dry off and warm calf
All of the above
Question 6
Which scoring parameter is not used in determining respiratory disease risk status?
Eyes or ears
Fecal score
Nasal discharge
Temperature
All of the above are used
Question 7
What factor is considered an important contributor to postpartum disease conditions?
High blood ketone concentration
High postpartum feed intake
Low blood glucose concentration
Low body condition score
Reduced prepartum feed intake
Question 8
Antibiotic residue is the same as antibiotic resistance in the animal.
False, they are not the same
True
It depends on the country’s regulations
Question 9
What practices are responsible for drug residues in meat or milk?
Drugs given or fed by mistake
Exceeding the approved dosage
Treatment records not maintained
Withdrawl time is not followed
All of the above
Question 10
Which of the following practices is an essential component for success of a disease management program for a dairy farm?
Use of Standard Operating Procedures
Ongoing monitoring and assessment
Vaccination program
Parasite control program
Reproductive management program
Question 11
Mastitis is defined as inflammation of one or more quarters of an cow’s udder
True
False
Question 12
On most occasions mastitis in dairy cattle is caused by bacteria
True
False
Question 13
Somatic cells are exclusively produced in the udder and do not come from blood
True
False
Question 14
Milk from cows with somatic cell count of Less than 200,000 cells/mL suggests that cow has a healthy udder.
True
False
Question 15
Effective teat dipping can reduce new udder infections by 50-90%
True
False
Question 16
Poor milk quality results in milk with decreased manufacturing properties and dairy products with reduced shelf-life
True
False
Question 17
Pasteurized milk ordinance describes the state and not federal specifications and standards for the production and handling of Grade “A” raw and pasteurized milk
True
False
Question 18
Milk in the bulk tank should be cooled to <40 F within 30 minutes and not warmed above 50 F when next milking’s milk is added to the tank
True
False
Question 19
The regulatory standard for Standard Plate Count is < 250,000 cfu/ml
True
False
Question 20
Coliforms are a group of bacteria that are associated with fecal and environmental contamination
True
False
Week 8
Question 1
The largest expense on a dairy farm in the United States is:
-
Labor
-
Feed
-
Replacements
-
Veterinary Care
Question 2
The calculation of income over feed cost per cow is:
-
The sum of all milk income the cow produce
-
Milk income plus the cost of feed
-
The difference between milk income and feed expense
-
None of the above
Question 3
Assuming that 1 kg of milk sold for $1.00 (USD), feeding 1 kg of feed to a lactating cow that costs $0.50 (USD) would be:
-
A net gain of $0.50 to $1.50 (USD)
-
A net loss of $0.50 to $1.50 (USD)
-
A net loss of less than $0.50 (USD)
-
A net gain of less than $0.50 (USD)
Question 4
Key areas of dairy farm management that impact profitability are:
-
Feeding and nutrition
-
Herd dynamics
-
Raising of replacements
-
All of the above
Question 5
In the United States, every $1 million in milk sales from a dairy farm generates:
-
10 new jobs and $1 million in economic impact
-
10 new jobs and $5 million in economic impact
-
17 new jobs and $3 million in economic impact
-
None of the above
Question 6
Why is it essential to process farm milk into storable products at some time in the year?
-
Because cows are more productive in some seasons than others
-
Because consumers consume different dairy products in some seasons than others
-
Because you cannot store drinking milk very long after it is produced
-
All of the above
Question 7
Farmers often depend on cooperatives to find a processor for their milk because
-
The supply and demand for milk changes frequently and the farmers often don’t have the contacts or the time to find different customers for their milk.
-
Farmers usually can’t fill an entire milk truck so it is inefficient to have the truck collecting milk from farms to also make many stops at the processing plants
-
Cooperatives sell enough milk to have someone whose entire job is to arrange customers for that days milk and arrange the transportation
-
All of the above
Question 8
Why do dairy pricing policies often have a different price for drinking milk than milk made into storable products? (Please select two!)
-
To give the farmers more money by diverting milk from the markets where consumers are least price responsive to markets where lower prices will convince consumers to buy more
-
To try to ensure that the country has a viable dairy industry
-
Because consumers find drinking milk more valuable
-
Because drinking milk has a shorter shelf life
Question 9
Why does the number of dairy farmers decrease over time?
-
Because technical progress allows the number of cows per farm to grow rapidly
-
Because the milk production per cow is shrinking
-
Because not many people want to become dairy farmers
-
Because milk consumption is shrinking
Question 10
Why don’t people drink more milk when it is on sale?
-
Milk is so cheap that has few good substitutes
-
Fluid milk is not particularly storable and can go bad if it is not consumed promptly
-
Milk is so expensive that most people can barely afford it anyway
-
Milk is a product where people are not especially sensitive to the price
Question 11
The most volatile nitrogen in dairy manure comes from:
-
Feces
-
Urine
-
Feed
-
Microbes
Question 12
In which situation it is likely that phosphorus in manure may increase?
-
The diet contains large amounts of by-product feeds
-
The diet contains large amounts of corn silage
-
The cow is in early lactation
-
The cow is in late lactation
Question 13
The primary source of methane emissions on a dairy farm is:
-
Solid manure
-
Liquid manure
-
The cow
-
The feeding equipment
Question 14
An efficient way of minimizing urinary nitrogen losses and ammonia emissions from manure and nitrous oxide emissions from manure-amended soil is:
-
Milking the cow 3 times a day
-
Grouping cows based on milk production
-
Feeding dietary protein close to recommendations
-
Not including urea in the diet
Question 15
An effective way of decreasing enteric methane emission intensity on a dairy farm is by:
-
Improving feed efficiency
-
Improving forage quality
-
Increasing milk production of the cows
-
All of the above