Coursera Fundamentals of Immunology Quiz: Death by Friendly Fire | All Week (1-6)

Coursera Fundamentals of Immunology Quiz: Death by Friendly Fire | All Week (1-6)

 
Fundamentals of Immunology: Death by Friendly Fire Quiz | All Week (1-6)

 

Fundamentals of Immunology: Death by Friendly Fire

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Week- 5
Quiz 5


 

 

 
Question 1
1. Type I hypersensitivity differs from Type II in that ________.
  • a sensitized individual can raise a I response in minutes, whereas II requires two days or more

     

  • mast cells are important in a I response and macrophages are important in a II

     

  • penicillin has not been identified as a trigger of I, but it does trigger II

     

  • I puts a person at serious risk for kidney damage, II does not

     

  • I is a runaway TH1 response, II is a runaway TH2 response

     

Question 2
2. The choroid plexus of the brain and the glomerulus of the kidney are especially vulnerable to damage by Type _______ hypersensitivity because of the anatomy of the capillaries.
  • I

     

  • II

     

  • III

     

  • IV

     

Question 3
3. The TH2 response to parasites may go astray and produce a hypersensitive response. Such a response will most likely be directed against ______.
  • poison ivy toxins

     

  • mosquito salivary proteins

     

  • red blood cells

     

  • pollen

     

  • organic solvents

     

Question 4
4. This receptor, found on mast cells and basophils, is unusual in that ______.
  • one peptide receives the signal from outside the cell, another generates a signal inside the cell

     

  • there are immunoglobulin domains on the peptide extending from the cell

     

  • there are ITAMs on the cytoplasmic domains than can pick up a phosphate

     

  • antibodies can bind to the receptor before they have bound antigen

     

  • cross-linking the receptor activates internal pathways leading to Ca2+ release

     

 
Question 5
5. In Type IV hypersensitivity, macrophages and Tc cells cooperate to remove infected or malignant tissues. The Tc cells _________ and the macrophages ___________.
  • induce apoptosis; recognize antibodies

     

  • induce apoptosis; clear out debris

     

  • summon TDTH cells; recognize antibodies

     

  • summon TDTH cells; clear out debris

     

  • recognize antibodies; summon TDTH cells

     

  • recognize antibodies; induce apoptosis

     

Question 6
6. Granulomas are primarily constructed of macrophages with signaling TDTH lymphocytes. Other cells associate with the granuloma the periphery, most notably fibroblasts and ________.
  • Treg cells

     

  • γδ T cells

     

  • TB bacteria

     

  • eosinophils

     

  • plasma cells

     

Question 7
7. This illustration shows drugs attached to a red blood cell that have attracted _______antibodies, thus setting off a process that will result in _________ of the cell.
  • IgE; complement-mediated destruction

     

  • IgE; CTL induction of apoptosis

     

  • IgG; complement-mediated destruction

     

  • IgG; CTL induction of apoptosis

     

Question 8
8. Type III hypersensitivity may result when an infection produces an excess of ____________, preventing ___________ clearing them.
  • antigen-antibody complexes; neutrophils

     

  • antigen-antibody complexes; macrophages and CTLs

     

  • viral-infected cells; neutrophils

     

  • viral-infected cells; macrophages and CTLs

     

Question 9
9. The inflammation that results from a mosquito bite is different from the inflammation that results from a positive TB skin test in that the reaction to the mosquito bite _________.
  • does not require prior sensitization

     

  • takes more time to appear

     

  • results primarily from antibody-antigen interactions

     

  • involves basophils, mast cells and TC cells

     

Question 10
10. A woman who is Rh- and gives birth to an Rh+ baby is given RhoGam. This protection is a form of ________.
  • active immunity that triggers the mother’s immune system to clear the baby’s blood from her circulation

     

  • active immunity that rids her body of any of her own immune cells that might attack any future Rh+ children she may later bear

     

  • passive immunity that will tie up the baby’s blood and prevent the mother from developing an anti-Rh+ immune response

     

  • passive immunity that will protect the mother’s blood from attack by the baby’s antibodies

     

 
Question 11
11. An undesirable result of a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction directed at a non-pathogen, such as a nickel ion, is that ________.
  • CTLs will attack healthy tissues

     

  • CTLs will ignore cells with intracellular bacteria

     

  • neutrophils will attack healthy tissues

     

  • neutrophils will ignore cells with intracellular bacteria

     

Final Quiz

Question 1
1. NK and NKT cells both have ________ receptors.
  • αβ TCR

     

  • γδ TCR

     

  • antibody

     

  • inhibitory MHC I

     

  • CD4 co-

     

Question 2
2. _________ induce apoptosis using granzymes and perforins and FAS ligand in rogue-self cells.
  • Only NK cells

     

  • Only Tc cells

     

  • Both NK and Tc cells

     

  • Neither NK nor Tc cells

     

Question 3
3. The picture shows an NK cell interacting with a viral-infected cell. The virus has blocked display of MHC I, although it cannot prevent the cell from showing signs of stress. The NK cell ______ attack because _______. The left-hand cell is labeled “infected cell own regulating MHC, and displays a stress ligand. The right hand (NK) cell has three receptors labeled: Ab, MHC and stress. It also secretes little purple dots.
  • will; the cell will activate ADCC in the NK cell

     

  • will; without MHC I inhibition, the stress ligand will prompt attack

     

  • will not; there is no MHC I to activate attack

     

  • will not; there are no antibodies present to prompt ADCC

     

Question 4
4. This picture shows a CTL interacting with a healthy cell. The CTL ______ attack because _______. The left hand cell is labeled normal, uninfected and has a smiling antigen displayed on its MHC I. The right hand cell is labeled CTL and has structures labeled TCR and CD8 extending from its surface as well as little purple dots.
  • will; it can bind to the peptides displayed the MHC I

     

  • will; the CTL has been activated by the TH cells

     

  • will not; the TCR and CD8 cannot recognize this type of MHC

     

  • will not; negative selection has removed any Tc cells that can recognize the antigen

     

Question 5
5. This picture shows a CTL cell infected with a virus capable of substituting its own fake MHC for the cell’s. The CTL ______ attack because _______. The left hand cell is labeled as infected with cytomegalovirus. It displays a stress ligand and an MHC homolog. The right hand cell is labeled CTL and has structures labeled TCR and CD8 extending from its surface as well as little purple dots.
  • will; it can bind to the peptides displayed the MHC I

     

  • will; a CTL has been activate by the TH cells

     

  • will not; the TCR and CD8 cannot recognize this type of MHC

     

  • will not; negative selection has removed any Tc cells that can recognize the antigen

     

Question 6
6. Which of these is NOT ultimately derived from the break-up of various types of phospholipids?
  • DAG

     

  • PAF

     

  • leukotrienes

     

  • arachidonic acid

     

  • sialic acid

     

  • IP3

     

Question 7
7. DAMPs are produced by ________.
  • pathogens as part of their normal functions

     

  • dying pathogens

     

  • endothelia summoning neutrophils

     

  • sick or aged self-cells

     

  • TH 17 cells curing border defense

     

  • blood clots during their breakdown

     

Question 8
8. Which of the following is least likely to be associated with an increase in the inflammatory response?
  • necrosis of cells, followed by phagocytosis of neutrophils

     

  • release of peptides curing cleavage of fibrinogen to fibrin (blood clotting)

     

  • cleavage of C5 during complement activation

     

  • apoptosis of surplus healthy cells

     

  • secretion of IFNγ by macrophages and TH cells

     

Question 9
9. Which of the cell adhesion molecules represented here is most similar to the ancestral molecule whose gene evolved into the different genes for T-cell receptors, MHC molecules and CD4? Each of the furs choices labels a drawing of a different transmembrane molecule. A indicates one with Ig domains. B indicates a structure with looks like a bush with a single trunk and many sub branches. C indicates a heterodimer. D indicates a long multi-domained molecule with a large oval domain on the end.
  • A

     

  • B

     

  • C

     

  • D

     

Question 10
10. Mannose-binding lectin, an important innate initiator of complement, has a binding domain similar to that of the cell adhesion molecule that binds _______.
  • chemokines

     

  • immunoglobulin domains

     

  • integrins

     

  • Ca2+

     

  • mucins

     

Question 11
11. Cyclo-oxygenases (which are inhibited by COX2 family of drugs) are important in the production of _________.
  • Hageman’s factor and bradykinin

     

  • thromboxane and prostaglandins

     

  • DAG and IP3

     

  • leukotrienes and arachidonic acid

     

  • lysoPAF and PAF

     

Question 12
12. Mismatched blood transfusions can kill people. If you put blood type B into a type O patient, the patient will often die with hours. What is the most likely basis of the resulting lawsuit?
  • The white blood cells from the transfusion will initiate a graft versus host response.

     

  • The NK cells from the host will attack the red blood cells because they lack MHC I.

     

  • The transfused cells will be killed by ADCC directed by anti-B antibodies.

     

  • Tc cells will attack the red blood cells, prompting apoptosis.

     

  • The Treg cells will not block immune sensitization because they cannot recognize the transfused antigens.

     

Question 13
13. Suppose, heaven forbid, someone gets infected with Ebola virus. Which of the following would be least likely affect that person’s chances of survival?
  • Nutritional status

     

  • Binding properties of specific MHC I and II variants

     

  • Ability to rapidly class switch into complement activation IgGs

     

  • availability of supportive care: IV fluids, blood pressure regulation, passive immunization therapies

     

  • use of broad-spectrum antibiotics

     

Question 14
14. Antigen unaccompanied by a co-stimulatory signal is most likely to activate _____.
  • macrophages

     

  • developing B cells

     

  • circulating memory TH cells

     

  • naïve T cells

     

  • Such an antigen cannot activate any of these cells.

     

Question 15
15. Plasmapheresis has a number of therapeutic applications. A patient with which of the following conditions/diseases would it be LEAST LIKELY to benefit from this treatment?
  • SLE (lupus)

     

  • Rh- with elevated Coombs titers while pregnant

     

  • transplanted organ showing signs of rejection

     

  • Graves’s disease

     

  • severe poison ivy exposure with lung involvement

     

Question 16
16. In general, women are more likely to exhibit _________. Most of the exceptions are genetic disease that are ________ in origin, which usually show up in males.
  • autoimmune disorders; X-linked

     

  • autoimmune disorders; autosomal

     

  • viral infections; X-linked

     

  • viral infections; autosomal

     

Question 17
17. Many of the therapies used to treat autoimmune disorders are also used to ________,
  • interfere with viral replication

     

  • treat metastasized tumors

     

  • block granuloma formation

     

  • prevent transplant rejection

     

  • promote effective responses to vaccines

     

Question 18
18. Excess hygiene has been implicated in promoting _______.
  • allergies

     

  • transplant rejection

     

  • autoimmune disorders

     

  • A and B

     

  • A and C

     

  • B and C

     

Question 19
19. The drug benralizumab, used to treat asthma, is named according to modern conventions. The first two syllables tell you ________ and the second from the last tells you _______.
  • that this is a monoclonal antibody; what it attaches to

     

  • what it attaches to; the organism that produced it

     

  • not much; what it attaches to

     

  • not much; the organism that produced it

     

  • the organism that produced it; not much

     

  • the organism that produced it; that this is a monoclonal antibody

     

Question 20
20. Methotrexate, also called aminopterin, is used in cancer chemotherapy, prevention of organ rejection, treatment of psoriasis and getting for rid of unfused myeloma cells during development of lines of monoclonal antibodies. What function does it have that makes it useful in these disparate roles?
  • activates CTLs

     

  • stops cells from multiplying

     

  • blocks apoptosis

     

  • interferes with insulin-like growth factors

     

  • binds IFNγ, lowering inflammation

     

Question 21
21. A patient recovers from Ebola, but seems to experience lingering symptoms. The virus is LEAST likely to remain in the ________
  • anterior capsule of the eye

     

  • semen (if male)

     

  • uterus (if female)

     

  • bloodstream

     

Question 22
22. Consider the function of IgA in breast milk. Which of the following does the IgA NOT do?
  • Induces infant’s production IgMs with a similar CDR

     

  • Ties up antigen in the infant digestive tract

     

  • Instructs infantile immune system as to what antigens are harmless

     

  • Lowers the risk of future allergic responses in later childhood

     

Question 23
23. Here’s a picture of the activation of inflammation and a list of steps in the process, which begins with a danger signal binding to the cell and ends with the activation of pro-inflammatory genes. Pick the choice that lists them in the correct order.
I. iκB phosphorylated
II. TLR sets off phosphorylation
III. NFκB translocates to nucleus
IV. Ankyrin domains release spectrin
  • I, II, IV, III

     

  • I, IV, II, III

     

  • II, I, III, IV

     

  • II, I, IV, III

     

  • III, I, II, IV

     

  • IV, II, I, III

     

Question 24
24. TH cells differ from Treg cells in that the TH cells _________ and the Treg cells do not.
  • have an αβ TCR

     

  • display a CD4 co-receptor

     

  • undergo apoptosis if they recognize self-antigen

     

  • constitutively express all three subunits of the IL-2 receptor

     

  • constitutively express high levels of CTLA4.

     

Question 25
25. An iTreg cell can participate in _________ Tolerance by __________ when presented with self-antigen in the absence of a danger signal
  • Central; activating

     

  • Central; becoming anergic

     

  • Peripheral; activating

     

  • Peripheral; becoming anergic

     

Question 26
26. The blue arrows point to leucine-rich protein domains in TLRs and NODs respectively. These domains function to bind ________.
  • undenatured protein antigenic epitopes

     

  • peptides presenting on MHC molecules

     

  • molecules characteristic of pathogens and tissue damage

     

  • accept phosphate groups

     

  • extend through a plasma or endo-membrane

     

Question 27
27. In an experiment designed to test tolerance mechanisms, scientists engineer a mouse that can make B cells that produce anti-HEL antibodies even if they don’t get selected to produce them. In a separate series of experiments they engineer other mice so that they produce HEL proteins, different strains expressing the gene in different cells. An F1 cross from one of these (named strain A) produces HEL in the peripheral circulation only and another F1 cross (named strain X) produces HEL only in the brain. You would find reactive cells from _______ in the bone marrow and reactive cells from ______ in the plasma.
  • X only; both

     

  • X only; A only

     

  • X only; neither

     

  • both; A only

     

  • both; X only

     

  • both; neither

     

Question 28
28. If a TH cell that can recognize a self-protein escapes from the thymus, it will usually become anergic (Peripheral Tolerance) if it encounters that antigen in the lymph nodes. This is in part because the sentinel dendritic cells _______.
  • will present the antigen only on MHC I

     

  • will present the antigen without the B7 co-stimulus

     

  • will present the antigen with the B7 co-stimulus, but the B7 will bind to the CTLA4

     

  • cannot present self-antigen

     

Question 29
29. B7 on a presenting cell can bind to both CD28 and CTLA4 on a TH cell. B7 binding to _____.
  • CTLA4 inhibits the T cell, binding to CD28 stimulates it

     

  • CD28 inhibits the T cell, binding to CTLA4 stimulates it

     

  • both CTLA4 and CD28 stimulate the T cell

     

  • both CTLA4 and CD28 inhibit the T cell

     

Question 30
30. Ulcerative colitis and juvenile onset diabetes may have in common that they both originate _______.
  • in epithelial tissue exposed to antigens directly from the environment

     

  • from a potential risk carried by the MHC I genotype of the individual

     

  • from genes that make it difficult to delete self-reacting T cells

     

  • via reaction to a pathogen that resembles self-cells

     

Question 31
31. While both autoimmune diseases and transplant rejection both represent a failure of tolerance, in the case of autoimmunity, TC cells attack cells displaying _________ and in transplant rejection they attack cells displaying _________.
  • foreign antigen on self MHC; self antigen on foreign MHC

     

  • foreign antigen on self MHC; foreign antigen on foreign MHC

     

  • foreign antigen on foreign MHC; self antigen on foreign MHC

     

  • foreign antigen on foreign MHC; foreign antigen on self MHC

     

  • self antigen on self MHC; foreign antigen on self MHC

     

  • self antigen on self MHC; foreign antigen on foreign MHC

     

Question 32
32. These two drawings show the chemical structures of drugs used to prevent ______, therefore would be ineffective in treating ________.
  • cell division; graft rejection

     

  • cell division; tuberculosis

     

  • cell division; multiple sclerosis

     

  • inflammation; graft rejection

     

  • inflammation; tuberculosis

     

  • inflammation; multiple sclerosis

     

Question 33
33. Autoimmune diseases are associated with a deficiency of vitamin ______.
  • A

     

  • B complex

     

  • C

     

  • D

     

  • E

     

  • folic acid

     

 
Question 34
34. The rash pictured here is a specific sign of ________.
  • inflammatory bowel disease

     

  • multiple sclerosis

     

  • rheumatoid arthritis

     

  • systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

     

  • Graves’ disease

     

  • myasthenia gravis

     

 
Question 35
35. Psoriasis is an unusual form of autoimmune disease in that it results from ________.
  • cell stimulation by antibodies

     

  • cell destruction by antibodies

     

  • cell destruction of Tc cells

     

  • excess cell division

     

Question 36
36. If you were born south of the 37th parallel, you are less likely to contract ________.
  • graft versus host disease

     

  • myasthenia gravis

     

  • multiple sclerosis

     

  • ALPS

     

  • Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

     

  • Lupus (SLE)

     

Question 37
37. Type II and Type IV hypersensitivity are similar in that they BOTH _______.
  • mark of potentially dangerous cells with IgE antibodies

     

  • produce an excess antibody-antigen complexes

     

  • require a one to four day period between antigen exposure and visible response

     

  • attack of foreign or potentially dangerous cells by leukocytes

     

  • primarily serve to rid the body of intracellular parasites

     

Question 38
38. Type I hypersensitivity reactions and Graves disease are both triggered by __________.
  • TDTH cells activating macrophages

     

  • ADCC attack on otherwise healthy tissue

     

  • antibodies cross-linking receptors

     

  • excess clumps of antibody-antigen complexes activating complement

     

  • histamine promoting smooth muscle contraction

     

Question 39
39. A Type I hypersensitivity response in mast cells could be triggered by _______.
  • crossing-linking of its antibody receptors by IgG antibodies to these receptors

     

  • exposing the receptor to allergenic antigen bound to IgG antibodies

     

  • promoting development of IgA by feeding a person the offending allergen

     

  • using a chelator to sequester all Ca2+ in the medium surrounding the cells

     

  • cytokine signals produced by TDTH cells

     

Question 40
40. Erythroblastosis fetalis (hemolytic anemia due to Rh incompatibility) is primarily a result of _______ antibodies directing ________ to attack the red blood cells of a fetus or infant.
  • IgE; macrophages

     

  • IgE; Tc

     

  • IgG; macrophages

     

  • IgG; Tc

     

Question 41
41. This cluster of antibodies would most likely result from _______.
  • rheumatoid arthritis

     

  • graft vs host disease

     

  • multiple sclerosis

     

  • psoriasis

     

  • a mosquito bite

     

  • myasthenia gravis

     

Question 42
42. This defensive structure show in the drawing is produced in response to a TH ______ response and protects the body by ________.
  • 1; summoning neutrophils

     

  • 1; inducing apoptosis in epithelial cells

     

  • 1; walling off infected macrophages

     

  • 2; summoning neutrophils

     

  • 2; inducing apoptosis in epithelial cells

     

  • 2; walling off infected macrophages

     

Question 43
43. An allergist is treating a highly sensitive individual and decides the safest way to test for the presence of antibodies to a specific allergen is to test his blood with an ELISA reaction. She should use a (n) ________ ELISA reaction with the reporter enzyme attached to an antibody that recognizes ________.
  • Indirect; IgE Fc stems

     

  • Sandwich; IgE Fc stems

     

  • Competitive; IgE Fc stems

     

  • Indirect; the specific allergen in question

     

  • Sandwich; the specific allergen in question

     

  • Competitive; the specific allergen in question

     

Question 44
44. Radioimmune assays are similar to competitive ELISA assays in that they BOTH ______.
  • must be done in according to the rules for working with radioactive isotopes

     

  • are less sensitive than agglutination reactions

     

  • use antibodies covalently linked to some kind of reporter to measure the amount of antigen

     

  • measure antibody levels, not antigen levels

     

  • decrease the intensity of the reporting response as antigen levels increase

     

Question 45
45. If you transplant a heart from an adult who is blood type B into and adult who is blood type O, the heart will begin getting rejected by a ________ hypersensitivity reaction _______.
  • II; within a day

     

  • III; within a day

     

  • IV; between 2 days and two weeks

     

  • II and IV; between 2 days and two weeks

     

Question 46
46. Often a person’s best match for a kidney or liver lobe transplant is a sibling. However even if two siblings are perfect MHC matches, they may have other antigenic differences. For instance, some proteins, called HY antigens, are coded for on the Y chromosome, but not the X. You might expect a reaction to these antigens to cause a problems for a situation where ______.
  • a brother was donating a kidney to his brother

     

  • a sister was donating a kidney to her brother

     

  • a brother was donating a kidney to his sister

     

  • A and B

     

  • A and C

     

  • B and C

     

Question 47
47. There are strains of highly inbred mice in which every mouse has exactly the same MHC I and II haplotypes. Transplanting organs from one of these mice to the other is the equivalent of a (n) _________ and a skin graft from one mouse to the other will ________.
  • isograft; vascularize and heal without inflammation

     

  • isograft; be rejected in a first set response after two weeks

     

  • allograft; vascularize and heal without inflammation

     

  • allograft; be rejected in a first set response after two weeks

     

  • xenograft; vascularize and heal without inflammation

     

  • xenograft; be rejected in a first set response after two weeks

     

Question 48
This diagram shows the set-up of a luminex assay, designed to show if a ________.
  • donor has antigen (A) not found in the recipient

     

  • donor has antibodies (B) to antigen found in the recipient

     

  • recipient has antigen (A) not found in the donor

     

  • recipient has antibodies (B) to antigen found in the donor

     

Question 49
If you transplant a ________ from one living donor to a recipient, the donor can often regenerate the missing tissue.
  • kidney

     

  • liver lobe

     

  • lung lobe

     

  • cornea

     

  • Forget it. Once you’ve given up one of these body parts, you won’t ever grow it back.

     

Question 50
This picture shows a CTL cell infected with a virus capable of substituting its own fake MHC for the cell’s. The CTL ______ attack because _______. The left hand cell is labeled as infected with cytomegalovirus. It displays a stress ligand and an MHC homolog. The right hand cell is labeled CTL and has structures labeled TCR and CD8 extending from its surface as well as little purple dots.
  • will; it can bind to the peptides displayed the MHC I

     

  • will; a CTL has been activate by the TH cells

     

  • will not; the TCR and CD8 cannot recognize this type of MHC

     

  • will not; negative selection has removed any Tc cells that can recognize the antigen

     

 

 

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