Introductory Human Physiology Quiz Answer. In this post you will get Quiz Answer Of Introductory Human Physiology
Introductory Human Physiology Quiz
Offered By ”Duke University”
Week- 1
Homeostasis and Endocrine System Exam
1.
Question 1
Even though no food had entered her stomach, the smell and sight of food caused Jane’s stomach to secrete more acid. This is an example of:
1 point
- feed-forward control
- tonic control
- negative control
- antagonistic control
2.
Question 2
Jerry is a normal 24 year old male with an intracellular fluid (ICF) volume of 24 L. What is the volume of his plasma?
1 point
- 3L
- 9 L
- 6 L
- 12 L
3.
Question 3
In a normal female, plasma levels of the hormone cortisol are highest in the early morning and half maximal at 4:00 in the afternoon. This is an example of:
1 point
- circadian rhythm
- antagonistic control
- tonic control
- autocrine control
4.
Question 4
Estrogen acts in the breast to increase the growth of the glands and the number of estrogen receptors in these cells. This is an example of:
1 point
- positive feedback
- negative feedback
- tonic control
- antagonistic control
5.
Question 5
Potassium ions in the _____ are in equilibrium with potassium ions in the _____.
1 point
- IVF; ISF
- ISF; ICF
- ECF; ICF
- IVF; ICF
6.
Question 6
A membrane that is permeable only to water separates two solutions of glucose dissolved in water. On one side (A) the glucose concentration is 0.1 g/ml. On the other side (B) the glucose is concentration is 0.6 g/ml. Initially the rate of water flow is:
1 point
- more rapid from side B to side A
- the same in both directions
- more rapid from side A to side B
- zero (no flow in either direction)
7.
Question 7
Larry drank 2 cups of hypotonic soup. How did the water in the soup distribute into the intracellular (ICF) and extracellular (ECF) compartments?
1 point
- net water movement from ICF to ECF but less than that seen with isotonic fluid ingestion.
- no change in water distribution between ICF and ECF.
- water will distribute equally (1/2 and 1/2) between ICF and ECF.
- net water movement from ECF to ICF greater than that seen with isotonic fluid ingestion.
8.
Question 8
The single most important factor that determines whether a given cell can be regulated by the steroid hormone aldosterone is the presence in this cell of:
1 point
- active transporters for aldosterone
- specific aldosterone receptors
- heat shock proteins
- cAMP and ADP
9.
Question 9
In obesity related Type II diabetes, levels of the peptide hormone, insulin, are either normal or elevated, yet target cells are less sensitive to the binding of insulin. This suggests that the target cells:
1 point
- are impermeable to insulin
- have a defect in their receptor signaling pathway
- have excess intracellular glucose
- cannot convert insulin to an active form
10.
Question 10
What is the maximum transport rate (Tm ) of the carrier depicted below?
1 point
- 8
- 10
- 20
- 4
11.
Question 11
When steroid hormones bind to their target cell receptors:
1 point
- transcription of DNA is stimulated
- the Na+/K+ ATPase becomes active
- ion channels open
- membrane bound receptors are activated
Week- 2
The Nervous System Exam
1.
Question 1
Which glial cells support neurons metabolically?
1 point
Schwann cells
microglial cells
astrocytes
oligodendrocytes
2.
Question 2
Which of the following will change the equilibrium potential for Na+?
1 point
the gating properties of the Na+ channels
the concentration of the Na+ on the inside of the cell versus the outside
the resting membrane potential of the cell
the ion channels that are open in the cell
3.
Question 3
Depolarization of the membrane means:
1 point
that the membrane potential is more negative than the resting potential
that the membrane potential is less negative than the resting potential
there are more negative charges on the inside of the cell compared to the
outside
that K+ channels are letting K+ into the cell
4.
Question 4
Graded potentials:
1 point
undergo spatial and temporal summation
do not occur until the membrane reaches threshold
are self-propagating
have refractory periods
5.
Question 5
Which of the following is TRUE about myelination?
1 point
It is necessary for saltatory conduction
It slows conduction along dendrites
It acts to electrically insulate synapses ONLY
It occurs only in the central nervous system
6.
Question 6
A neurotransmitter would have a greater chance of starting an action potential in a post-synaptic neuron by:
1 point
causing a graded hyperpolarization in the post-synaptic membrane
closing Na+ channels in the post-synaptic membrane
opening K+ channels in the post-synaptic membrane
causing a graded depolarization in the post-synaptic membrane
7.
Question 7
The portion of the nervous system that integrates sensory information is the:
1 point
central nervous system
parasympathetic nervous system
somatic nervous system
afferent nervous system
sympathetic nervous system
8.
Question 8
The branch of the efferent nervous system that stimulates organs under conditions of rest and digestion is the:
1 point
parasympathetic nervous system
sympathetic nervous system
afferent nervous system
central nervous system
somatic nervous system
Week- 3
The Senses and the Somatic Nervous System Exam
1.
Question 1
In the eye, most of the refraction of light occurs in the:
1 point
lens
cones
cornea
retina
rods
2.
Question 2
The structure that is surrounded by ciliary muscles.
1 point
retina
lens
cornea
cones
rods
3.
Question 3
The frequency of a sound determines:
1 point
the portion of the basilar membrane that vibrates
the vibration of the tectorial membrane
the loudness of a sound
the direction of hair cell stereocilia vibration
4.
Question 4
The otolith organs:
1 point
sense linear acceleration
include three circular canals
sense based on the movement of fluid
sense rotation of the head
5.
Question 5
Contraction of the ciliary muscles of the eye:
1 point
flattens the lens
does not affect the shape of the lens
allows the lens to become more spherical
6.
Question 6
Stimulation of the afferent neuron coming from a skeletal muscle spindle receptor leads to:
1 point
relaxation of a single muscle
stimulation of a single muscle
contraction of the muscle and relaxation of the antagonistic muscle
relaxation of the muscle and contraction of the antagonistic muscle
7.
Question 7
The sensory receptor that detects skeletal muscle tension is:
1 point
nociceptors
gamma motor neurons
the muscle spindle receptor
the Golgi tendon organ
8.
Question 8
The cell bodies of alpha motor neurons controlling the skeletal muscles of the body are found in:
1 point
the ventral horn of the spinal cord
sensory nerves
the dorsal root ganglia outside the spinal cord
Week- 4
Muscle Exam
1.
Question 1
After a skeletal muscle fiber is treated with a membrane permeable drug that speeds up the action of the SR Ca+2-ATPase, how would the first twitch differ?
1 point
the twitch would last the same amount of time
the twitch would produce more tension
the twitch would last longer
the twitch would be shorter
2.
Question 2
After a skeletal muscle fiber is treated with a membrane permeable drug that speeds up the action of the SR Ca+2-ATPase, how would contraction differ after multiple and frequent action potentials?
1 point
fused tetanus would be reached sooner than an untreated fiber
the maximal tension would be increased compared to an untreated fiber
fused tetanus would be reached later than an untreated fiber
fused tetanus would be reached in the same amount of time as an untreated
fiber
3.
Question 3
During muscle contraction, the portion of the sarcomere that shortens is:
1 point
the myosin band (A band)
the myosin filaments
the actin only band (I band)
the actin filaments
4.
Question 4
Which of the following is the typical order of motor unit recruitment?
1 point
fast-glycolytic, fast-oxidative, slow-oxidative
slow-oxidative, fast-oxidative, fast-glycolytic
slow-oxidative, fast-glycolytic, fast-oxidative
fast-oxidative, slow-oxidative, fast-glycolytic
5.
Question 5
Which factor regulates cross-bridge formation in skeletal muscle?
1 point
amino acid concentration in the cytoplasm
glycogen concentration in the cytoplasm
Ca+2 concentration in the cytoplasm
glucose concentration in the cytoplasm
6.
Question 6
Which of the following types of muscles have sufficient numbers of gap junctions between fibers to propagate action potentials between cells?
1 point
both cardiac muscle and multi-unit smooth muscle
multi-unit smooth muscle only
both cardiac muscle and single-unit smooth muscle
single-unit smooth muscle only
cardiac muscle only
7.
Question 7
The dominant mechanism for the removal of Ca2+ from the cytosol following contraction of the cardiac muscle cell is the:
1 point
L type Ca+2 channel
SR Ca+2 release channel (ryanodine receptor)
SR Ca+2 ATPase
Na+/Ca+2 exchanger
8.
Question 8
Smooth muscle cells differ from skeletal muscle cells in that smooth muscle does NOT contain:
1 point
thin filaments
myosin ATPase activity
troponin–tropomyosin complexes
dense bodies
9.
Question 9
In smooth muscle cells, a pacemaker potential differs from a graded potential because pacemaker potentials:
1 point
always reach threshold
activate with the influx (entry) of Cl-
activate with the efflux of Na+
vary in size
Week- 5
Cardiovascular System Exam
1.
Question 1
Ventricular repolarization in the human heart:
1 point
begins in the atria and travels in the same direction as the depolarization wave.
results from phase 2 of the fast action potential.
is represented by the T wave on the electrocardiogram (ECG).
is represented by the QRS complex on the electrocardiogram (ECG)
2.
Question 2
Which changes will occur in the fast action potential of a normal heart (depicted below) as the heart rate increases from 70 to 150 beats per minute?
1 point
duration of phase 0 will increase.
duration of phase 2 will decrease.
duration of phase 1 will increase.
absolute refractory period will lengthen.
3.
Question 3
Which is TRUE of the cardiac pacemaker cell action potential shown below?
1 point
Repolarization in Phase 3 is due to potassium efflux (exit) from the cell.
Phase 2 depolarization is caused by an increase in sodium influx (entry) into the cell.
Slow depolarization in phase 4 is due to calcium efflux (exit) from the cell.
Phase 3 is caused by the opening of the funny sodium channels.
4.
Question 4
AV valves of the heart open and close because of:
1 point
nervous impulses to papillary muscles.
passive recoil of valves.
changes in pressure in adjacent chambers.
mechanical stretching of the fibers attached to the valves as the myocardium contracts and relaxes.
5.
Question 5
The region of the heart that normally has the highest rate of spontaneous action potentials is the:
1 point
Purkinje fibers
Atrioventricular (AV) node
Bundle of HIS
Sinoatrial (SA) node
6.
Question 6
In an electrocardiogram (ECG) shown below, the atrio-ventricular (AV) conduction time is reflected in the:
1 point
P-wave duration
T-wave duration
QT interval
PR interval
7.
Question 7
Due to differences in opposing forces, there is usually a net _____ occurring at the arteriolar end of most capillaries coupled with net ___ at the venous end.
1 point
absorption; filtration
filtration; absorption
8.
Question 8
Dilation of the arterioles in a single organ would lead to:
1 point
an increase in pressure in the large arteries of that organ.
an increase in capillary pressure in that organ.
a decrease in both capillary and venous pressures in that organ.
a decrease in blood flow to that organ resulting from the decreased blood pressure.
9.
Question 9
Increasing venous return increases cardiac output by:
1 point
decreasing end diastolic volume
increasing the stroke volume
decreasing the ejection fraction
increasing heart rate
10.
Question 10
What is the ejection fraction for the left ventricle depicted in the P-V loop depicted below?
1 point
100%
80%
60%
50%
11.
Question 11
Contrast the following:
(i) velocity of blood flow in capillaries
(ii) velocity of blood flow in aorta
1 point
(ii) > (i)
(i) = or nearly = (ii)
(i) > (ii)
12.
Question 12
Joan rose quickly from her bed to answer the front doorbell. In response to rising, her baroreceptors:
1 point
decreased firing
had no change in their firing rate
increased firing
Week- 6
Respiratory System Exam
1.
Question 1
The volume of air inspired by a person at rest is the:
1 point
residual volume
inspiratory reserve volume
vital capacity
total lung capacity
tidal volume
2.
Question 2
The lung volume that increases in a person with obstructive lung disease is the:
1 point
inspiratory reserve volume
vital capacity
tidal volume
residual volume
total lung capacity
3.
Question 3
The volume of air that can be exhaled after maximal inspiration is the:
1 point
tidal volume
inspiratory reserve volume
residual volume
vital capacity
total lung capacity
4.
Question 4
Inspiratory capacity minus tidal volume equals:
1 point
inspiratory reserve volume
vital capacity
total lung capacity
residual volume
tidal volume
5.
Question 5
The volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal exhalation is the:
1 point
vital capacity
inspiratory reserve volume
residual volume
tidal volume
total lung capacity
6.
Question 6
Compliance is:
1 point
decreased in a person with emphysema
increased in a person with restrictive lung disease
the change in lung volume per unit change in transpulmonary pressure
7.
Question 7
Air flows into the lung when:
1 point
PA equals Patm
PA is less than Patm
PA is greater than Patm
8.
Question 8
The intrapleural pressure is determined by:
1 point
the elastic recoil of the lung
atmospheric pressure
PaO2
9.
Question 9
FEV1/FVC (Forced expiratory volume in 1 second/Forced vital capacity) is less than 80% in:
1 point
patients with restrictive lung disease
patients with obstructive lung disease
10.
Question 10
Which breathing pattern gives the greatest alveolar ventilation (ml/min) in a person with an anatomic dead space of 150 ml?
1 point
200 ml tidal volume, 30 breaths per minute
1150 ml tidal volume, 5 breaths per minute
450 ml tidal volume, 12 breaths per minute
11.
Question 11
During expiration, the PACO2:
1 point
stays the same
decreases
increases
12.
Question 12
When the O2 – hemoglobin curve shifts to the left it means:
1 point
that the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen has increased
nothing in terms of hemoglobin affinity for oxygen
that the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen has decreased
13.
Question 13
With increasing plasma H+ concentration, minute ventilation will:
1 point
decrease
increase
remain the same
14.
Question 14
A situation that may lead to respiratory acidosis would be:
1 point
vomiting
mild exercise
hyperventilation
hypoventilation
15.
Question 15
Hypoxia due to cyanide poisoning results in:
1 point
anemic hypoxia
histotoxic hypoxia
hypoxic hypoxia
ischemic hypoxia
Week- 7
The Endocrine System Exam
1.
Question 1
A 42 year old mother has an enlarged thyroid gland and elevated levels of triiodothyronine in her blood. Predict her heart rate.
1 point
Bradycardia (below 60 bpm)
Tachycardia (above 100 bpm)
Normal (60-100 bmp)
2.
Question 2
In chronic iodine deficiency, the thyroid gland:
1 point
remains unchanged.
enlarges due to elevated secretion of thyroid hormone.
shrinks due to decreased secretion of thyroid hormone.
enlarges due to elevated secretion of TSH.
3.
Question 3
In response to stress, cortisol and _____, increase lipolysis of fat.
1 point
Thyroxine (T4)
Insulin like-growth factor -1 (IGF-1)
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Epinephrine
Aldosterone
4.
Question 4
Athletes who inject high doses of human growth hormone (GH), exhibit increased muscle mass and increased blood levels of:
1 point
Thyroxine (T4)
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Epinephrine
Triiodothyronine (T3)
Insulin like-growth factor -1 (IGF-1)
5.
Question 5
In response to an increase in blood Na+ levels, the posterior pituitary secretes:
1 point
Epinephrine
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Aldosterone
Insulin like-growth factor -1 (IGF-1)
6.
Question 6
Excess secretion of ACTH can cause beard growth and deepening of the voice in a female because of the secretion of:
1 point
Epinephrine
Insulin like-growth factor -1 (IGF-1)
Triiodothyronine (T3)
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)
7.
Question 7
In humans the normal secretion of ACTH is correctly described as:
1 point
decreased by the weak androgen DHEA
increased by cortisol
decreased by low plasma glucose
pulsatile and circadian
8.
Question 8
Which of the following initiates its biological effects by activating cell membrane bound receptors?
1 point
cortisol
aldosterone
epinephrine
thyroxine (T4)
9.
Question 9
Which of the following findings are most likely present in an individual with high circulating levels of aldosterone due to a tumor?
1 point
hyperkalemia (increased blood K+ levels)
decreased ECF volume
hypokalemia (decreased blood K+ levels)
no change in either K+ blood concentration or ECF volume
10.
Question 10
During the fed (anabolic) state, nervous tissue derives most of its metabolic energy from:
1 point
amino acids
ketones
glucose
fatty acids
11.
Question 11
During the fasting state, plasma glucose levels decrease to < 80 mg/dL leading to secretion of ____ from alpha cells of the pancreatic islet.
1 point
insulin
growth hormone
cortisol
glucagon
12.
Question 12
Insulin secretion from the pancreas is inhibited by an increase in:
1 point
blood glucose levels above 130 mg/dL.
plasma amino acids
plasma epinephrine levels.
intracellular ATP within the beta islet cells.
13.
Question 13
In skeletal muscle, insulin activated receptors:
1 point
inhibit the entry of glucose.
recruit glucose transporters to the plasma membrane.
are located in the nucleus.
open ATP gated K+ channels to speed repolarization.
Week- 8
The Reproductive System Exam
1.
Question 1
In the male and female, inhibin B provides a negative feedback signal which regulates:
1 point
LH ONLY
FSH ONLY
LH, FSH and GnRH
GnRH ONLY
2.
Question 2
Puberty does not normally occur in humans under the age of 8 years, because before that age:
1 point
the hypothalamus is very sensitive to negative feedback by gonadal steroids
the pituitary secretes excess amounts of gonadotrophin releasing hormone (GnRH)
the hypothalamus is unresponsive to gonadal steroids
the ovaries and testes cannot secrete gonadal steroids
3.
Question 3
The phase of the uterus is directly determined by hormones released by the:
1 point
ovary
hypothalamus
pituitary
4.
Question 4
If the progesterone receptor gene is inactive in a female of reproductive age, you would expect:
1 point
decreased expression of estrogen receptors in the uterus
no change in the expression of estrogen receptors in the uterus
increased expression of estrogen receptors in the uterus
5.
Question 5
Human chorionic gonadotrophin, hCG, produced by the forming embryo, is essential for pregnancy to occur because:
1 point
it can be detected in a woman’s urine
it allows the corpus luteum to continue producing estrogen and progesterone
it acts as a growth hormone for the developing baby
6.
Question 6
Inactivation of the estrogen receptor in a human male would:
1 point
accelerate closure of the epiphyseal plate, restricting height.
prevent closure of the epiphyseal plate, leading to excess height.
decrease bone density (osteoporosis).
7.
Question 7
In men, an inactivating mutation in the LH receptor would most likely cause:
1 point
low circulating testosterone levels but no change in intra-testicular testosterone levels
increased sperm production
an absence of secondary male characteristics
8.
Question 8
High levels of testosterone were administered in a clinical trial to evaluate various end-points of testosterone action. The results showed that treated males had:
1 point
decreased levels of dihydrotestosterone (DHT)
decreased sperm count
increased secretion of testosterone by the testes
increased sperm count
Week- 9
The Gastrointestinal System Exam
1.
Question 1
The most effective inhibitor of human gastric acid secretion is:
1 point
a histamine H2 receptor inhibitor
a proton pump inhibitor
somatostatin
gastrin
2.
Question 2
The arrival of food in the lumen of the stomach directly increases the secretion of ______ which acts to increase gastric acid secretion.
1 point
somatostatin.
histamine.
gastrin.
pepsin.
3.
Question 3
The main signal in the stomach lumen that results in inhibition of gastrin secretion is:
1 point
histamine.
proteins and amino acids.
protons (H+).
somatostatin.
4.
Question 4
The main signal in the small intestine lumen that results in increased pancreatic bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) secretion is:
1 point
cholecystokinin (CCK).
proteins and amino acids.
secretin.
protons (H+).
5.
Question 5
In the stomach lumen, pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by:
1 point
bicarbonate (HCO3-)
trypsin
hydrochloric acid (HCl)
carbonic anhydrase
6.
Question 6
After eating a steak, the amount of hydrochloric acid (HCl) and the pH in the human stomach:
1 point
stay relatively constant in the first 60 minutes
decrease in the first 60 minutes.
increase in the first 60 minutes
7.
Question 7
The secretion of bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) by the pancreas increases in response to:
1 point
secretin
somatostatin
gastrin
glucagon like peptide -1
8.
Question 8
What hormone stimulates the secretion of inactive enzymes (zymogens) from the pancreas?
1 point
cholecystokinin (CCK)
histamine
secretin
gastrin
9.
Question 9
Vomiting uses primarily:
1 point
contraction of respiratory and abdominal skeletal muscles.
the migrating motor complex (MMC)
mass movement.
contraction of the inner smooth muscle mass to generate reverse peristalsis.
10.
Question 10
Fats from the diet cross the intestine epithelial cells to enter the ____ as chylomicrons.
1 point
lymphatic circulation
blood circulation
11.
Question 11
The electrical depolarizations that occur rhythmically in the intestine in the fed state are called:
1 point
slow waves.
migrating myoelectric complexes (MMCs).
mass movements.
action potentials.
12.
Question 12
The mechanism of absorption of glucose into the body is:
1 point
secondary active transport
facilitated diffusion.
simple diffusion.
primary active transport.
Week- 10
The Urinary System Exam
1.
Question 1
Renal threshold of substance X refers to the plasma concentration of X where:
1 point
the secretion of X equals the reabsorption of X.
all of the renal transporters for X are saturated.
maximal glomerular filtration of X occurs.
2.
Question 2
Jane donated 1 liter of blood to the Red Cross this morning. To maintain volume homeostasis, plasma levels of _____ increased.
1 point
aldosterone ONLY
antidiuretic hormone (ADH) ONLY
aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone
atrial natriuretic factor ONLY
3.
Question 3
A normal human triples his dietary salt (NaCl) intake over two weeks. This will lead to:
1 point
an increase in plasma volume
an increase in plasma aldosterone concentration
an increase in plasma pH
an increase in plasma renin activity
4.
Question 4
Activation of the renin-angiotensin II-aldosterone system (RAAS) will:
1 point
increase the oncotic pressure in the glomerular capillary.
decrease hydrostatic pressure in the vasa recta.
increase the filtrate pressure within the renal tubule.
decrease the filtrate pressure within Bowman’s space.
5.
Question 5
In a normal kidney, if drug X is freely filtered by the glomerulus and its clearance is greater than that of inulin, then:
1 point
Drug X is reabsorbed by the renal tubules.
Drug X cannot be compared to inulin.
Drug X is secreted by the renal tubules.
Drug X is insoluble in urine.
6.
Question 6
When the mean arterial pressure (MAP) increases from 90 mmHg to 100 mmHg in a normal kidney, renal blood flow:
1 point
increases
decreases
remains unchanged
7.
Question 7
Use the following values to calculate the filtration pressure within a glomerulus. Hydrostatic pressure, 45 mm Hg; Bowman’s capsule fluid pressure, 15 mm Hg; Oncotic pressure, 20 mmHg.
1 point
30 mm Hg
80 mm Hg
10 mm Hg
40 mm Hg
8.
Question 8
Increased delivery of Na+ to the principal cells of the renal tubule leads to increased:
1 point
secretion of K+
reabsorption of Na+ and K+
secretion of Na+
9.
Question 9
In a normal kidney, tubular fluid (filtrate) is always isotonic in the:
1 point
Collecting duct (CD)
Thick ascending Loop of Henle (TAL)
Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)
Ureter
10.
Question 10
Inhibition of the co-transporter for sodium, chloride and potassium in the ____ will increase the amount of urine excreted.
1 point
Thin Loop of Henle
Thick ascending Loop of Henle (TAL)
Collecting duct (CD)
Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)
11.
Question 11
In normal kidneys, most of the filtered bicarbonate is reabsorbed within the:
1 point
Thin Loop of Henle
Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)
Collecting duct (CD)
Thick ascending Loop of Henle (TAL)
12.
Question 12
John drank 2 liters of water in 1 hour. This lowered his blood osmolality to 240 mOsM (normal 290 mOsM) and caused a rapid increase in plasma levels of:
1 point
antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
atrial natriuretic factor (ANF)
aldosterone